admissions@cyberlawacademy.com | +91-XXXXXXXXXX
Final Assessment

Module 3: Primary Market Operations - IPOs & Capital Raising

Comprehensive assessment covering all 6 parts. Score 70% or above to earn your Module 3 completion certificate.

[Questions] 50 Questions [Time] ~45 minutes [Pass] 70% [Certificate] Certificate on Pass

Instructions

  • Answer all 50 questions - there is no negative marking
  • Questions cover: ICDR Regulations, IPO Process, Book Building, Rights Issues, QIP, Merchant Bankers
  • Click on an option to select your answer
  • You can change your answer before submitting
  • After submission, you will see explanations for each question
  • Score 35 or more (70%) to pass and earn your certificate
Question 0 of 50 answered
Q1 Part 1: ICDR Regulations
The SEBI (Issue of Capital and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2018 replaced which earlier regulations?
Explanation
The ICDR Regulations, 2018 replaced the earlier ICDR Regulations, 2009 with a simplified structure and enhanced disclosure requirements.
Q2 Part 1: ICDR Regulations
Under the profitability route (Regulation 6(1)), the minimum net tangible assets required for each of the preceding 3 years is:
Explanation
Under Regulation 6(1), the issuer must have net tangible assets of at least Rs. 3 crore in each of the preceding 3 full years.
Q3 Part 1: ICDR Regulations
Under the QIB Route (Regulation 6(2)), what percentage of the net offer must be mandatorily allotted to QIBs?
Explanation
Under the QIB Route for companies not meeting profitability norms, 75% of the net offer must be mandatorily allotted to QIBs.
Q4 Part 1: ICDR Regulations
An issuer is NOT eligible for public issue if any promoter is a:
Explanation
An issuer is disqualified if any promoter or director is a wilful defaulter or fugitive economic offender.
Q5 Part 1: ICDR Regulations
The current lock-in period for minimum promoter contribution (20%) post the 2022 amendment is:
Explanation
Post the 2022 amendment, promoter lock-in for minimum contribution was reduced from 3 years to 18 months.
Q6Part 1: ICDR Regulations
The Due Diligence Certificate format is prescribed in which Schedule of ICDR Regulations?
Explanation
Schedule VI of ICDR Regulations prescribes the format for Due Diligence Certificate to be submitted by lead managers.
Q7Part 1: ICDR Regulations
For Innovators Growth Platform (IGP), the minimum application amount is:
Explanation
For IGP (Innovators Growth Platform) listings, the minimum application amount is Rs. 2 lakh, restricting participation to more sophisticated investors.
Q8Part 1: ICDR Regulations
The minimum public shareholding requirement post-issue for companies with post-issue market cap exceeding Rs. 4000 crore is:
Explanation
For large cap companies (market cap exceeding Rs. 4000 crore), minimum public shareholding is 10% (compared to 25% for others).
Q9Part 2: IPO Process
DRHP stands for:
Explanation
DRHP stands for Draft Red Herring Prospectus, the document filed with SEBI containing all disclosures except final price.
Q10Part 2: IPO Process
SEBI observations on DRHP are typically issued within:
Explanation
SEBI reviews the DRHP and issues observations typically within 30 days, which may be extended if clarifications are needed.
Q11Part 2: IPO Process
The Red Herring Prospectus is filed with:
Explanation
The Red Herring Prospectus (RHP) is filed with the Registrar of Companies (ROC) after incorporating SEBI observations.
Q12Part 2: IPO Process
The current T+X listing timeline under SEBI guidelines is:
Explanation
Current SEBI guidelines mandate T+6 listing timeline (reduced from T+12), where T is the issue closure date.
Q13Part 2: IPO Process
SEBI observations letter validity period is:
Explanation
SEBI observations are valid for 12 months from the date of issuance. The company must complete the IPO within this period.
Q14Part 2: IPO Process
The DRHP contents are prescribed in which Schedule of ICDR?
Explanation
Schedule VIII prescribes the contents and disclosures required in offer documents including DRHP.
Q15Part 3: Book Building
The maximum gap between floor price and cap price in a book-built issue is:
Explanation
Under Regulation 30, the cap price cannot exceed the floor price by more than 20% of the floor price.
Q16Part 3: Book Building
The minimum investment required from each anchor investor is:
Explanation
Each anchor investor must invest a minimum of Rs. 10 crore in the IPO.
Q17Part 3: Book Building
The maximum portion of QIB quota that can be allocated to anchor investors is:
Explanation
Up to 60% of the QIB portion can be allocated to anchor investors under Regulation 32.
Q18Part 3: Book Building
Under profitability route, the allocation to retail individual investors is:
Explanation
Under profitability route: QIB 50%, NII 15%, Retail 35%.
Q19Part 3: Book Building
The lock-in period for anchor investors is:
Explanation
Anchor investors have a 30-day lock-in period from the date of allotment.
Q20Part 3: Book Building
ASBA stands for:
Explanation
ASBA stands for Application Supported by Blocked Amount, where funds remain blocked in investor's account until allotment.
Q21Part 3: Book Building
In a highly oversubscribed IPO, retail allotment is done on:
Explanation
When retail category is oversubscribed, allotment is done on lottery basis, ensuring fair chance to all applicants.
Q22Part 3: Book Building
Small NII (sNII) category includes applications between:
Explanation
sNII (Small NII) includes applications between Rs. 2 lakh to Rs. 10 lakh; above Rs. 10 lakh is bNII (Big NII).
Q23Part 4: Rights Issues
In a rights issue with 1:5 ratio, a shareholder holding 500 shares is entitled to:
Explanation
1:5 ratio means 1 new share for every 5 held. 500/5 = 100 new shares entitlement.
Q24Part 4: Rights Issues
Rights Entitlement (RE) shares trade with which suffix on stock exchanges?
Explanation
Rights Entitlement shares trade with -RE suffix (e.g., RELIANCE-RE) during the trading window.
Q25Part 4: Rights Issues
For Fast Track Rights Issue eligibility, minimum average market cap required is:
Explanation
Fast Track Rights Issue requires average market cap of Rs. 1000 crore or more.
Q26Part 4: Rights Issues
FPO stands for:
Explanation
FPO stands for Follow-on Public Offer, a public issue by an already listed company.
Q27Part 4: Rights Issues
Minimum promoter contribution in IPO/FPO is:
Explanation
Minimum promoter contribution is 20% of post-issue paid-up capital (Regulation 14).
Q28Part 5: Private Placements
Preferential allotment requires approval by:
Explanation
Preferential allotment requires special resolution (75% majority) of shareholders under Regulation 158.
Q29Part 5: Private Placements
Minimum price for preferential issue is the higher of average of:
Explanation
Preferential issue minimum price = Higher of 26-week and 2-week weekly high-low averages (Regulation 164).
Q30Part 5: Private Placements
QIP stands for:
Explanation
QIP stands for Qualified Institutional Placement, allowing listed companies to issue securities to QIBs.
Q31Part 5: Private Placements
Maximum discount permitted to QIP floor price is:
Explanation
QIP can be issued at maximum 5% discount to the floor price (which is 2-week average).
Q32Part 5: Private Placements
QIP floor price is based on:
Explanation
QIP floor price is based on 2-week average (unlike preferential which uses higher of 26-week or 2-week).
Q33Part 5: Private Placements
Lock-in period for equity shares issued through preferential allotment to non-promoters is:
Explanation
Non-promoter equity shares in preferential allotment have 1 year lock-in (Regulation 167).
Q34Part 5: Private Placements
QIP lock-in period is:
Explanation
QIP shares have 1 year lock-in, but can be transferred to other QIBs during lock-in (Regulation 175).
Q35Part 5: Private Placements
Minimum number of QIB allottees required for QIP above Rs. 250 crore is:
Explanation
For QIP above Rs. 250 crore, minimum 5 QIB allottees required (2 for up to Rs. 250 crore).
Q36Part 6: Merchant Bankers
The minimum net worth requirement for Category I Merchant Banker is:
Explanation
Category I Merchant Banker must maintain minimum net worth of Rs. 5 crore at all times.
Q37Part 6: Merchant Bankers
BRLM stands for:
Explanation
BRLM stands for Book Running Lead Manager, the merchant banker managing a book-built issue.
Q38Part 6: Merchant Bankers
The 78-day post-issue report is filed by BRLM with:
Explanation
The 78-day post-issue report is filed with SEBI covering utilization of funds and other compliance.
Q39Part 6: Merchant Bankers
Maximum monetary penalty under SEBI Act for intermediary violations can be:
Explanation
Under SEBI Act S.15H, penalty can be up to Rs. 25 crore or 3 times the gains made from violation.
Q40Part 6: Merchant Bankers
For issues above Rs. 100 crore, appointment of which agency is mandatory?
Explanation
For issues above Rs. 100 crore, a monitoring agency (CRA) must be appointed to monitor utilization of proceeds.
Q41Part 6: Merchant Bankers
3-day post-issue report is filed with SEBI within:
Explanation
3-day post-issue report must be filed within 3 days of listing (i.e., by T+9).
Q42Part 6: Merchant Bankers
Criminal liability under SEBI Act S.24 can result in imprisonment up to:
Explanation
Criminal prosecution under SEBI Act S.24 can result in imprisonment up to 10 years.
Q43Mixed Topics
RTI in IPO context stands for:
Explanation
RTI stands for Registrar to the Issue, handling bid processing, allotment, and refunds.
Q44Mixed Topics
QIB includes all EXCEPT:
Explanation
Individual HNIs are NOT QIBs. They fall under NII category. QIBs are institutional investors like MFs, FPIs, banks, insurance companies.
Q45Mixed Topics
Cut-off price bidding facility is available only to:
Explanation
Cut-off price bidding is available only to Retail Individual Investors, allowing them to bid at whatever price is finally determined.
Q46Mixed Topics
Retail investor application limit in IPO is:
Explanation
Retail individual investor category is for applications up to Rs. 2 lakh. Above this falls in NII category.
Q47Mixed Topics
OFS in IPO context stands for:
Explanation
OFS stands for Offer for Sale, where existing shareholders sell their shares (no fresh capital raised).
Q48Mixed Topics
Green Shoe Option allows an issuer to:
Explanation
Green Shoe Option allows over-allotment of up to 15% of issue size for post-listing price stabilization.
Q49Mixed Topics
LODR stands for:
Explanation
LODR stands for Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements Regulations, 2015.
Q50Mixed Topics
The "relevant date" for preferential issue pricing when GM approval is required is:
Explanation
Relevant date = 30 days before GM OR date of Board meeting, whichever is earlier (Regulation 164).
[Trophy]
Your Score
0/50
0%
Complete all questions to see your result.
Part 1
-
Part 2
-
Part 3
-
Part 4
-
Part 5
-
Part 6
-
Back to Module